This is very strange, and I admit to probably requiring the correction and/or comment of a real "Expert Economist" (or some MBA whizz-kid) to sort it out, as I am sure I am not smart enough to figure it out.
Profit equals Price minus Cost, if I recall my one and only foray into the 'dismal science' a'right.
Why is it that when PROFITS rise, it is not considered 'inflationary' ???
Only when COSTS rise--and usually only when they rise on account of increased costs for labor--does it register on the National Official Federal Inflation-ometer...
Very strange, that...Very strange, indeed...
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